PSYCHIATRY

Schizophrenia & Mood Disorders

Positive symptoms, SIG E CAPS, and the duration criteria that define the spectrum

Opening Challenge

A 22-year-old man has 4 months of auditory hallucinations, paranoid delusions, disorganized speech, and withdrawal from friends. No medical cause has been identified. His psychosis has been present continuously for 4 months. Which is the MOST accurate diagnosis?

A) Schizophreniform disorder (1 to 6 months)
B) Schizophrenia (6 months or more)
C) Brief psychotic disorder (less than 1 month)
D) Schizoaffective disorder
Schizophreniform. Duration is the key discriminator on the spectrum. Brief psychotic disorder = less than 1 month. Schizophreniform = 1 to 6 months. Schizophrenia = 6 months or more. This patient has 4 months, which falls squarely in the schizophreniform window. Schizoaffective requires a concurrent major mood episode overlapping with the psychosis, which is not mentioned here.
01 · Schizophrenia Spectrum

The Psychosis Spectrum

Same symptom clusters, different duration cutoffs. Duration is the entire boards question.

The board pattern: every psychosis question gives you duration. That one number routes you to the right diagnosis. Memorize: less than 1 month = Brief, 1 to 6 months = Schizophreniform, 6 or more months = Schizophrenia. Mood episode concurrent? Consider Schizoaffective. Non-bizarre delusion, no hallucinations, functioning intact? Delusional Disorder.
Diagnosis Duration Key Feature Prognosis
Brief Psychotic < 1 month Often stressor-triggered. Sudden onset. Good. Full return to baseline.
Schizophreniform 1 to 6 months Same criteria as schizophrenia, shorter duration. May resolve. Variable. 1/3 recover fully.
Schizophrenia ≥ 6 months 2 of 5 active-phase symptoms for 1 month, total 6+ months disturbance. Chronic. Lifelong management.
Schizoaffective Same as schizophrenia Psychosis + major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent. Psychosis must also exist 2+ weeks WITHOUT mood episode. Better than schizophrenia, worse than pure mood disorder.
Delusional Disorder > 1 month Non-bizarre delusions only. No hallucinations. Functioning largely intact. Chronic but often functional.

DSM Criteria · Active Phase

Schizophrenia

Requires 2 of 5 active-phase symptoms for at least 1 month (or less if treated): delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms. Total duration of disturbance (including prodrome/residual) must be 6+ months.

Epidemiology: lifetime risk 1%. Men onset early 20s, women late 20s. Viral exposure in utero (influenza), winter birth, and urban upbringing increase risk.

Dopamine hypothesis: excess D2 activity in mesolimbic pathway = positive symptoms. D1 deficiency in prefrontal cortex = negative and cognitive symptoms. Antipsychotics block D2 to treat positive symptoms. Negative symptoms are harder to treat.

Glutamate hypothesis: NMDA receptor hypofunction underlies negative and cognitive symptoms. Ketamine and PCP block NMDA and produce a schizophrenia-like state with both positive and negative features.

Excess mesolimbic D2 Deficient prefrontal D1 NMDA hypofunction Lifetime risk 1% Men early 20s / Women late 20s
Must-include rule: at least 1 of the 2 required symptoms must be a "Tier 1" symptom: delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. You cannot meet schizophrenia criteria with only negative symptoms and disorganized behavior.

Duration < 1 month

Brief Psychotic Disorder

Full psychotic episode, then complete return to premorbid functioning. Often triggered by an identifiable stressor. Good prognosis. The stressor-triggered subtype is sometimes called brief reactive psychosis.

Full recovery Stressor-triggered

Duration 1 to 6 months

Schizophreniform

Identical criteria to schizophrenia, just not enough time has passed yet. About one-third resolve and never convert. Two-thirds go on to meet schizophrenia criteria. Good prognostic features: acute onset, confusion during episode, no flat affect.

1/3 full recovery 2/3 become schizophrenia

Psychosis + Mood

Schizoaffective

Psychosis must overlap with a major mood episode (manic, mixed, or depressive). The critical distinguisher from "Bipolar I with psychotic features": psychosis must persist for 2 or more weeks WITHOUT a mood episode. Two subtypes: bipolar type (mania or mixed) and depressive type.

Psychosis without mood ≥ 2 wks Bipolar or Depressive type

Non-bizarre Delusions Only

Delusional Disorder

Fixed, non-bizarre delusions (i.e., could theoretically happen: being followed, spouse infidelity, having a disease). No hallucinations. No significant functional impairment. Functioning is preserved. Duration more than 1 month. Folie a deux (shared psychotic disorder): person adopts delusions of a dominant close contact.

Non-bizarre only Functioning intact No hallucinations
Positive symptoms = things added on top of normal function. Dopamine excess in the mesolimbic tract drives these. They respond well to typical (first-generation) antipsychotics and atypicals.

Positive Symptom 1

Hallucinations

Perception without external stimulus. Hierarchy by boards frequency: auditory > visual > tactile > olfactory. Auditory is the most common type and the most board-tested.

Command hallucinations (voices telling patient to harm self or others) = highest safety risk. Always assess for command hallucinations when a psychotic patient expresses SI/HI.

Auditory #1 Command = safety risk

Positive Symptom 2

Delusions

Fixed false beliefs not amenable to reason. Types by frequency: persecutory #1 (being followed, poisoned), grandiose (#2), erotomanic (famous person loves them), somatic (disease conviction), referential (events/media are directed at them personally).

Bizarre delusions (impossible, like thought insertion) are sufficient alone to count as one criterion.

Persecutory #1 Grandiose #2 Erotomanic Somatic

Positive Symptom 3

Disorganized Speech

Reflects a breakdown in the normal flow of thought. Patterns: loose associations (tangential topic jumps), tangential replies (answers that leave the question entirely), word salad (incoherent jumble), neologisms (invented words), clang associations (rhyming-driven speech, e.g., "I like Mike who is a spike on a bike").

Loose associations Word salad Clang associations

Positive Symptom 4 + 5

Disorganized Behavior + Catatonia

Disorganized behavior: unpredictable, goal-less actions. Inappropriate affect (laughing at funerals). Inability to perform activities of daily living.

Catatonia: motor dysregulation spectrum. Waxy flexibility (limb stays in position placed), posturing, stupor (unresponsive), or excited catatonia (purposeless agitation). Catatonia can also occur in severe mood disorders.

Waxy flexibility Stupor or excitement Also in mood disorders
Negative symptoms = loss of normal function. The "5 As." D1 deficiency in prefrontal cortex drives these. They predict long-term functional outcome better than positive symptoms. Poorly treated by typical antipsychotics; atypicals modestly better.

The 5 A's

Negative Symptoms

Affect (flat/blunted): reduced or absent emotional expressiveness. Flat face, monotone voice.

Alogia: poverty of speech. Short, empty answers. Not picking up conversation threads.

Avolition: lack of motivation to initiate and sustain goal-directed activities. The patient just sits.

Anhedonia: inability to experience pleasure. Previously enjoyable activities no longer interest them.

Associality: social withdrawal, reduced desire for relationships. Not the same as social anxiety.

Flat Affect Alogia Avolition Anhedonia Associality

Cognitive Domain

Cognitive Symptoms

Impaired working memory (holding information briefly in mind), executive function (planning, task-switching, inhibition), and sustained attention. These are the strongest predictors of vocational and social functioning in schizophrenia.

Cognitive symptoms often predate the first psychotic break (prodromal period). They are largely unresponsive to current antipsychotic medications.

Best predictor of function Antipsychotics don't help much
Board trap: negative symptoms look like depression. The key differentiator is context. Flat affect plus alogia plus avolition in a patient who previously had psychosis = schizophrenia negative symptoms. The same presentation in someone with no psychosis history and a clear stressor = likely MDD. Anhedonia appears in both but is driven by different mechanisms.
02 · Mood Disorders

MDD vs. Bipolar

SIG E CAPS for depression. DIGFAST for mania. Duration and polarity tell the rest.

SIG E CAPS mnemonic for the 9 MDD criteria: Sleep (insomnia or hypersomnia), Interest (anhedonia), Guilt or worthlessness, Energy (fatigue), Concentration (difficulty), Appetite (increased or decreased), Psychomotor (agitation or retardation), Suicidal ideation. Plus depressed mood itself as the 9th. Need 5 of 9 for 2 or more weeks, and depressed mood OR anhedonia MUST be one of the 5.

Diagnosis · SIG E CAPS

Major Depressive Disorder

Criteria: 5 or more of 9 symptoms for at least 2 weeks. Must include depressed mood OR anhedonia (these are the "anchors"). Symptoms represent a change from baseline. Cause significant distress or impairment. Not attributable to substance or medical condition.

Specifiers that change management:
Melancholic: severe, worse in AM, psychomotor changes (retardation or agitation), inability to feel better even briefly (no reactivity), early morning awakening, excessive guilt. Best response to TCAs and ECT.
Atypical: mood brightens with positive events (reactive), hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis, rejection sensitivity. Best response to MAOIs (board favorite).
Psychotic: delusions or hallucinations. Add antipsychotic. ECT is first-line for severe cases.
Peripartum: during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of delivery (up to 1 year per some criteria).

Treatment: SSRI first-line for most. CBT equally effective for mild to moderate. ECT for severe, refractory, or immediate SI.

5 of 9 for 2+ weeks Depressed mood OR anhedonia required SSRI first-line ECT for severe/refractory Atypical MDD: MAOI preferred
DIGFAST mnemonic for manic episode symptoms: Distractibility, Impulsivity (or Indiscretion), Grandiosity, Flight of ideas (or racing thoughts), Activity increased (or psychomotor agitation), Sleep decreased (not insomnia, they don't want to sleep), Talkativeness (pressured speech). Need 3 of 7 (or 4 if mood is only irritable, not elevated).

Full Mania Required

Bipolar I

Requires at least 1 manic episode. Manic episode criteria: elevated, expansive, or irritable mood plus increased goal-directed activity or energy, lasting 7 or more days (or any duration if hospitalized or psychotic features present). 3 of 7 DIGFAST symptoms (4 if only irritable).

A depressive episode is common but NOT required for Bipolar I. Many patients remember their manias fondly and resist treatment.

1 manic episode = diagnosis ≥ 7 days (or hospitalized) Depression not required

Hypomania + Depression Required

Bipolar II

Requires at least 1 hypomanic episode AND 1 major depressive episode. Hypomania: same DIGFAST criteria but lasts only 4 or more days, is NOT severe enough to require hospitalization, and has NO psychotic features. Functioning may actually improve during hypomania. Patient has never had a full manic episode. Converting to mania reclassifies to Bipolar I.

Hypomania ≥ 4 days Depression required No hospitalization / no psychosis Never had full mania

Cyclothymia

Cyclothymic Disorder

At least 2 years of numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms AND depressive symptoms that do NOT meet full criteria for a hypomanic or major depressive episode. Never symptom-free for more than 2 months. Significantly milder than Bipolar II. Treatment: mood stabilizers (often lithium or lamotrigine).

2 years continuous Sub-threshold episodes

Bipolar Treatment Highlights

Mood Stabilizers

Lithium: first-line for Bipolar I (acute and maintenance), strongest evidence for suicide prevention. Monitor: thyroid, renal, and serum levels. Narrow therapeutic index. Toxicity: tremor, polyuria, GI upset. Severe toxicity: cardiac arrhythmia, seizure.

Valproate: good for rapid cycling and mixed episodes. Teratogenic (neural tube defects). Monitor LFTs, CBC.

Lamotrigine: best for bipolar depression. Risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome if titrated too fast.

Lithium: suicide prevention Valproate: teratogenic Lamotrigine: bipolar depression

Depressed Mood ≥ 2 Years

Persistent Depressive Disorder

Formerly "dysthymia." Depressed mood most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years (1 year in children). Does not meet full MDD criteria. At least 2 of: poor appetite or overeating, insomnia or hypersomnia, low energy, low self-esteem, poor concentration, hopelessness. Never more than 2 months symptom-free. Patients often say they have "always been this way."

≥ 2 years Sub-threshold MDD "Always been this way"

Luteal Phase

PMDD

Severe mood symptoms (irritability, depression, anxiety, affective lability) in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, resolving within a few days of menses onset. Must be documented over 2 cycles. Significantly impairs functioning. Treatment: SSRIs (luteal phase or continuous) are first-line; OCPs are second-line.

Luteal phase pattern SSRI first-line Resolves with menses

Identifiable Stressor

Adjustment Disorder

Emotional or behavioral symptoms within 3 months of an identifiable stressor. Symptoms are disproportionate to the stressor's magnitude. Do not meet criteria for another mental disorder. Resolves within 6 months after the stressor ends. Can be with depressed mood, anxious mood, mixed mood, disturbance of conduct, or mixed disturbance. Treatment: supportive therapy, short-term counseling.

Within 3 months of stressor Resolves in 6 months

Grief vs MDD

Normal Grief

Normal grief after bereavement: sadness comes in waves, often triggered by reminders of the deceased. The person still experiences positive emotions. Thoughts are focused on the deceased (not generalized hopelessness). Preserved self-esteem. No anhedonia for other aspects of life.

When to diagnose MDD: if symptoms are pervasive, persistent, include hopelessness, worthlessness, and anhedonia for all activities, across all contexts, for 2 or more weeks, MDD can be diagnosed even concurrent with bereavement.

Waves, not constant Positive emotions still possible Pervasive anhedonia = MDD
03 · Suicide Risk

Assessing Suicide Risk

SAD PERSONS, direct assessment, and the one medication with the strongest evidence.

Paradox: women attempt suicide more often. Men complete suicide more often. The difference is method lethality: men more commonly use firearms (highly lethal), women more commonly use overdose (lower lethality per attempt). The most important intervention after hospitalization is means restriction, particularly firearm access.
Risk Factors: SAD PERSONS
The 10-factor screening mnemonic

S · Sex: males complete more. Females attempt more.
A · Age: bimodal risk. Adolescents (15 to 24) and elderly (75+) have highest rates.
D · Depression: strongest psychiatric risk factor. MDD, bipolar, schizoaffective all elevate risk.
P · Previous attempt: single strongest predictor of future completion. Past attempt 30 to 40x higher risk than general population.
E · Ethanol and substance use: disinhibits, impairs problem-solving, elevates impulsivity.
R · Rational thinking loss: psychosis, particularly command hallucinations, dramatically increases risk.
S · Social support lacking: isolation, recent divorce/separation, no close relationships.
O · Organized plan: a specific plan with method, time, place = high risk.
N · No spouse (widowed, separated, divorced).
S · Sickness: chronic medical illness, especially terminal diagnosis, intractable pain.

Previous attempt = #1 predictor Command hallucinations = emergency Organized plan = hospitalize
Assessment: Ask Directly
Passive ideation to active plan with means

Asking about suicide does NOT increase suicidal behavior. Ask directly: "Are you having thoughts of hurting or killing yourself?"

Ladder of risk:
1. Passive ideation: "I wish I were dead" (not a plan, but still serious)
2. Active ideation without plan: wants to die, no specific method
3. Active ideation with plan: "I will use my gun at home"
4. Active ideation with intent: intends to carry out the plan
5. Access to means: has the firearm, the pills, the location

Columbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS): validated tool used in clinical settings.

Hospitalize when: active plan + intent, or access to lethal means, or command hallucinations with intent, or patient cannot contract for safety.

Asking = protective, not harmful Plan + intent + access = admit C-SSRS validated scale
Treatment: Means, Meds, and Follow-Up
Lithium is the board answer for suicide prevention

Means restriction: most effective single intervention. Removing firearms from the home reduces suicide risk substantially. Ask every at-risk patient about firearms and involve family in securing them.

Lithium: the strongest pharmacological evidence for suicide prevention. Reduces completed suicide 6 to 7 times in bipolar disorder. Consider for any high-risk bipolar patient.

Clozapine: the only antipsychotic with FDA approval for reducing suicidal behavior in schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. First-line for high-risk schizophrenia patients. Requires weekly CBC monitoring (agranulocytosis risk).

Follow-up within 1 week of discharge: highest-risk period for reattempt is the 3 months post-discharge, especially the first 7 days.

Lithium: 6-7x suicide reduction Clozapine: schizophrenia SI Follow up within 7 days Means restriction first
04 · Elimination Game

Narrow It Down

One clue at a time. Eliminate wrong diagnoses until one is standing.

A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing auditory hallucinations and paranoid delusions for the past 9 months. During this period, she also had a 3-week episode of elevated mood, decreased sleep, and grandiosity that required hospitalization. She has no identifiable medical cause and no substance use.
Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective Disorder
Bipolar I with Psychotic Features
Brief Psychotic Disorder
Clue 1: Duration is 9 months and Brief Psychotic Disorder requires less than 1 month. Also, Schizophrenia does require 6 or more months of total disturbance, which she meets on duration alone. But there is a mood episode to account for. Brief Psychotic Disorder is eliminated.
Clue 2: The key distinction between Bipolar I with psychotic features and Schizoaffective disorder is timing. In Bipolar I with psychotic features, psychosis occurs ONLY during mood episodes. In Schizoaffective disorder, psychosis persists OUTSIDE of mood episodes for at least 2 weeks. This patient had 9 months of hallucinations and delusions but only a 3-week mood episode. That means psychosis was present for roughly 8 months without a mood episode. Bipolar I with psychotic features and Schizophrenia are both eliminated.
Verdict: Schizoaffective Disorder (Bipolar Type). She has ongoing psychosis that exists independently of the mood episode (9 months psychosis, only 3-week mania), PLUS a manic episode that occurred concurrently with psychosis. That is the definition: schizophrenia-like psychosis with a superimposed major mood episode, where the psychosis also stands alone for at least 2 weeks.
The rule: Psychosis confined to mood episodes only = Bipolar I with psychotic features. Psychosis also exists outside mood episodes (≥ 2 weeks) = Schizoaffective disorder. Duration of psychosis far exceeds the mood episode duration here. That gap is diagnostic.
05 · Retrieval Practice

Quiz

Four board-style questions. Original vignettes. Pick your answer before the explanation.

Question 1 of 4

A psychiatry attending teaches that MDD requires 5 of 9 SIG E CAPS criteria for at least 2 weeks. A student asks whether any of the 9 symptoms are required, or whether any combination of 5 suffices.

Which of the following MUST be present as one of the five symptoms to diagnose a major depressive episode?
APsychomotor agitation or retardation
BSleep disturbance (insomnia or hypersomnia)
CDepressed mood OR loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia)
DSuicidal ideation or recurrent thoughts of death
Tempting to diagnose MDD based on symptom count alone: 5 criteria is 5 criteria, and sleep problems, weight change, and fatigue are all legitimate symptoms. The trap is that DSM-5 requires at least one of the two anchor symptoms (depressed mood OR anhedonia) to be among the qualifying five. Think of the MDD diagnosis as a key on a ring: the ring can hold any 5 keys, but it is useless without the master key (depressed mood or anhedonia) as one of the five. A patient with insomnia, fatigue, poor concentration, weight loss, and psychomotor slowing but no sadness and no anhedonia does NOT meet criteria. Correct: C. The DSM requires that at least 1 of the 5 symptoms must be either depressed mood OR anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure). These two are the "anchors" of the diagnosis. You cannot diagnose a major depressive episode if neither is present, even if the patient has 5 other qualifying symptoms. Sleep disturbance, psychomotor changes, and suicidal ideation all count but none is individually required. Break it down: MDD = 5 of 9 criteria for 2 weeks, BUT depressed mood or anhedonia MUST be one of the five; symptom count alone is insufficient without an anchor symptom; no anchor = no MDD diagnosis regardless of symptom count.
Question 2 of 4

A 28-year-old woman is referred by her primary care physician after her husband noticed she spent $15,000 on furniture in one weekend, slept only 2 hours per night for 5 days, and was "talking a mile a minute." She was admitted involuntarily for 3 days. She has also had two prior episodes of major depression. She denies any previous episodes like this.

What is the key feature that distinguishes this patient's diagnosis from Bipolar II disorder?
AThe presence of decreased sleep during the elevated mood episode
BThe presence of prior major depressive episodes
CThe episode was severe enough to require hospitalization
DThe elevated mood lasted more than 4 days
Tempting to call this Bipolar II: he has a hypomanic history and depressive history, which is exactly the Bipolar II pattern. The trap is the hospitalization. Once a mood elevation requires hospitalization, it crosses the threshold from hypomania to mania by definition, making this Bipolar I. Think of mania vs hypomania as the same fire burning at two intensities: hypomania is a controlled burn (no hospitalization, no psychosis, no marked functional impairment), mania is the fire department response (hospitalization OR psychotic features OR marked impairment). This one called the fire department. Correct: C. Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode. A manic episode is distinguished from a hypomanic episode (Bipolar II) by severity: mania is severe enough to require hospitalization, OR causes marked functional impairment, OR includes psychotic features. Hypomania, by definition, does NOT require hospitalization and does NOT have psychotic features. The decreased sleep and prior depression are present in both. Duration threshold for mania is 7+ days (hypomania is 4+ days), but hospitalization supersedes the duration requirement. Break it down: Bipolar I = at least one manic episode (hospitalization OR psychotic features OR marked impairment = automatic mania); Bipolar II = hypomania only (never full mania); hospitalization during a mood episode = mania = Bipolar I by definition.
Question 3 of 4

A 34-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by police after neighbors reported him standing in the street shouting that "the voices are telling me to get a knife and go to my neighbor's house." He is agitated and appears frightened.

What is the FIRST clinical priority in this patient's assessment?
AAdjust his antipsychotic regimen to better control positive symptoms
BObtain a social work consult regarding community housing resources
CAssess safety: does he have intent to follow the command hallucinations?
DContact the neighbor to issue a Tarasoff warning
Tempting to jump straight to involuntary hospitalization or Tarasoff warning: there is a hallucination directing harm toward an identifiable person, and that sounds like an immediate duty-to-warn situation. The trap is that the clinical sequence matters. Tarasoff duty applies when there is a serious, credible threat to an identifiable person AND intent to act. Before any clinical or legal action, you need to assess whether the patient intends to follow the command and whether the threat is credible. Think of it like a security protocol: you do not evacuate the building because someone said the word "fire," you first confirm there is actual smoke. Safety assessment comes before legal obligations. Correct: C. Command hallucinations directing harm to self or others are the highest-risk form of auditory hallucination. The first clinical step is always safety assessment: does the patient have intent to act on the command? Does he have access to the means (a knife)? Is there a specific target (the neighbor)? Only after you have established the level of intent and danger can you determine the appropriate response, which may include involuntary hospitalization and, if there is a specific identifiable threat to a known person, a duty-to-warn (Tarasoff) obligation. But that step comes after the safety assessment, not before. Break it down: command hallucinations = highest-risk hallucinations; first step = safety assessment (intent, access, specific target); Tarasoff duty = serious credible threat + identifiable victim + intent to act; assessment BEFORE legal action, not simultaneous.
Question 4 of 4

A 45-year-old man presents to his physician for a check-up. His wife of 18 years died 4 months ago from cancer. He reports feeling profoundly sad and missing her every day. He occasionally thinks he sees her face in a crowd and then realizes it is a stranger. He has lost 6 pounds because he "just forgets to eat sometimes." He has no suicidal ideation. He is back at work part-time and still meets with friends occasionally. He says, "Some days are better than others."

Which diagnosis BEST fits this presentation?
AMajor depressive disorder
BAdjustment disorder with depressed mood
CBrief psychotic disorder
DNormal grief reaction
Tempting to diagnose MDD: the patient is sad, withdrawn, crying at times, and seeing an illusion of his deceased wife. The trap is that grief is a normal, expected, adaptive response to bereavement, and the DSM distinguishes it from MDD by specific features. Think of normal grief as a river that ebbs and flows, with clear periods and difficult ones, while MDD is a stagnant pond with no movement. In grief: sadness comes in waves (not pervasive), positive emotions are preserved in between, the pain centers on the loss (not generalized worthlessness), and brief perceptual experiences (seeing the deceased) are normal, not psychotic. Correct: D. This is normal grief. Key features that distinguish it from MDD: sadness comes in waves with better and worse days (not pervasive), his positive emotions and social functioning are partially preserved (still working, seeing friends), his preoccupation is specifically with his deceased wife (not generalized hopelessness or worthlessness), and he has no suicidal ideation. The brief illusions of seeing her face in a crowd are a recognized feature of uncomplicated grief, not psychosis. Adjustment disorder could apply but grief is the more precise diagnosis when the stressor is bereavement. MDD would require pervasive symptoms, anhedonia for most activities, and persistent functional impairment across all contexts for 2+ weeks. Break it down: normal grief = waves of sadness (not pervasive), preserved positive emotions, pain centered on the loss, brief grief-related perceptions are normal; MDD = pervasive hopelessness/worthlessness, anhedonia across all activities, persistent impairment; brief illusions of the deceased in grief = normal, NOT psychosis.
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Board-Style Walkthrough

Board-Style Walkthrough

Original board-style vignettes. Shuffled, never-repeat, full explanations for every choice.